Many people who reject the Bible believe that
it supports various kinds of oppression. However, it is actually quite a
big question: What comes first: interpretations of the Bible that
support oppression or oppression itself.
150 years ago, many
American preachers used the Bible to support slavery of the black
people. Does the Bible support it? I do not think so. What was the cause
and what was the sequence? Did the
wrong interpretation of the Bible cause the slavery of the black? Or the
slavery of the black existed in the society and then theologians
invented a special interpretation of the Bible to support it?
It is interesting to note that the slavery of the black has never
existed in Russia. And Russian theologians never taught that the slavery
of the black was supported by the Bible.
So, I think that in
this case it is quite clear that American theologians just invented
interpretation of the Bible in order to support the slavery of the
black. It is true though that when societal norms began to change and
the slavery was no longer considered as norm, some Christians continued
to believe that it was supported by the Bible.
I think it may
be the case with all the other kinds of oppression: antisemitism,
racism, sexism, heterosexism, and many other. First, such things
appeared in the society. Then, the Bible was interpreted in such a way
as to justify these things. Later, however, people continued to believe
that the Bible supports such things while it was not the case.
If
the Bible was used to support slavery, racism, antisemitism, sexism,
homophobia, and many other kinds of oppression, it does not mean that
the Bible really supports them.
Friday, December 21, 2012
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